When I heard the virus presented as "novel" in early 2020, and one for which we had no natural immunity, I first laughed at the very idea and then started digging into just what kind of fraud was taking place. I'm a freelance consultant, and I had four months in 2020 with no billable time. There was a lot of digging to do.
I recall that, growing up in the 50s and 60s, we would sometimes lose our sense of taste when the nose stopped up, in addition to the obvious effect on smell. This was a normal thing, explained as perceived taste being a combination of the senses of taste and smell. When the nose was stopped up, taste was also affected. I've wondered if any of what is being reported now could be related to that.
I have a friend, however (not vaxxed) that went through three different rounds of something covid-like, where he lost taste and smell for an extended period of time. I talked with him about that experience, and what he described did not sound like what I recall from growing up.
So for clarification, remember that we all experience some sort of loss of taste and smell from respiratory infections. This may be due to the stuffiness and possible damage to nasal epithelium. I also concede that, relative to other respiratory infections, SARS-COV2 may present with a higher degree of post-viral symptoms.
However, the argument here isn't the relativity of symptoms in SARS-COV2 groups relative to non-COVID groups, but rather to point out that post-viral syndromes have always been around and is not inherent to SARS-COV2.
Bear in mind that if this sort of information isn't commonly known then people who lose taste and smell following a typical infection and having those symptoms persist for months may not associate their symptoms with that infection. In contrast with COVID, the hyper vigilance of Long COVID commentary has made people more aware of Long COVID.
I've had the same results trying to get an answer. People describe it as something quite different than anything before experienced. Then again, when have any of us ever really asked another person in detail how exactly their taste and smell was previously altered? Not til now. And since it is so variously explained but darn near universally called "different than", we have to just accept that it must be different than anything else previously or currently experienced with any other illness. I don't know. I've tried to see if there's a connection between people who seem very suggestible and the descriptions they use. But, I never knew so many people were as suggestible as they certainly seem to be. I recall having had mono as a teen and I could not smell anything. Too clogged up. Taste? Best of my recollection everything tasted plastic or metallic. And I lost weight because due to alteration in taste and smell I did not want to eat. So I have been wondering, if everyone has completely lost taste and smell and it is so totally different than anything they have ever had ever, why didn't they lose weight? Because I am not seeing any correlation there.
I provided a bit of context to ClearMiddle above. Keep in mind that loss of taste and smell due to a stuffy nose is different than what may be happening with post-viral loss of taste in smell in the following months. Note that the Henkin, et al. study noted that people didn't have stuffy noses, but rather had dry noses with reduced discharge, so presentation appears to be different.
The whole purpose of this post is not to point out the typical loss of taste and smell, but refer specifically to loss of taste and smell in the weeks and months following a respiratory infection given that this is one of the symptoms of Long COVID.
"We have demonstrated widespread dissemination of the SARS virus in the immune cells of the blood, spleen, and lymph nodes, as well as in the epithelial cells of the lungs, trachea, ...
Multiple organ infection and the pathogenesis of SARS
When I heard the virus presented as "novel" in early 2020, and one for which we had no natural immunity, I first laughed at the very idea and then started digging into just what kind of fraud was taking place. I'm a freelance consultant, and I had four months in 2020 with no billable time. There was a lot of digging to do.
I recall that, growing up in the 50s and 60s, we would sometimes lose our sense of taste when the nose stopped up, in addition to the obvious effect on smell. This was a normal thing, explained as perceived taste being a combination of the senses of taste and smell. When the nose was stopped up, taste was also affected. I've wondered if any of what is being reported now could be related to that.
I have a friend, however (not vaxxed) that went through three different rounds of something covid-like, where he lost taste and smell for an extended period of time. I talked with him about that experience, and what he described did not sound like what I recall from growing up.
So for clarification, remember that we all experience some sort of loss of taste and smell from respiratory infections. This may be due to the stuffiness and possible damage to nasal epithelium. I also concede that, relative to other respiratory infections, SARS-COV2 may present with a higher degree of post-viral symptoms.
However, the argument here isn't the relativity of symptoms in SARS-COV2 groups relative to non-COVID groups, but rather to point out that post-viral syndromes have always been around and is not inherent to SARS-COV2.
Bear in mind that if this sort of information isn't commonly known then people who lose taste and smell following a typical infection and having those symptoms persist for months may not associate their symptoms with that infection. In contrast with COVID, the hyper vigilance of Long COVID commentary has made people more aware of Long COVID.
I've had the same results trying to get an answer. People describe it as something quite different than anything before experienced. Then again, when have any of us ever really asked another person in detail how exactly their taste and smell was previously altered? Not til now. And since it is so variously explained but darn near universally called "different than", we have to just accept that it must be different than anything else previously or currently experienced with any other illness. I don't know. I've tried to see if there's a connection between people who seem very suggestible and the descriptions they use. But, I never knew so many people were as suggestible as they certainly seem to be. I recall having had mono as a teen and I could not smell anything. Too clogged up. Taste? Best of my recollection everything tasted plastic or metallic. And I lost weight because due to alteration in taste and smell I did not want to eat. So I have been wondering, if everyone has completely lost taste and smell and it is so totally different than anything they have ever had ever, why didn't they lose weight? Because I am not seeing any correlation there.
I provided a bit of context to ClearMiddle above. Keep in mind that loss of taste and smell due to a stuffy nose is different than what may be happening with post-viral loss of taste in smell in the following months. Note that the Henkin, et al. study noted that people didn't have stuffy noses, but rather had dry noses with reduced discharge, so presentation appears to be different.
The whole purpose of this post is not to point out the typical loss of taste and smell, but refer specifically to loss of taste and smell in the weeks and months following a respiratory infection given that this is one of the symptoms of Long COVID.
LONG SARS ONE
EMMANUEL
https://twitter.com/ejustin46/status/1686009019549319168
LONG SARS1 !!!
EVERYTHING was already KNOWN in 2005!
"We have demonstrated widespread dissemination of the SARS virus in the immune cells of the blood, spleen, and lymph nodes, as well as in the epithelial cells of the lungs, trachea, ...
Multiple organ infection and the pathogenesis of SARS
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2213088/